Jan 12, 2017 · As for Proto-Indo-European influence on Semitic, there don't seem to be any Proto-Indo-European words which are attested in all branches of Semitic. Individual words from post-PIE languages entered various languages of the Middle East, such as words relating to horse husbandry in Akkadian and Hurrian, but otherwise there's no identifiable PIE ...

Jul 20, 2017 · As several others have said, older languages like Hittite, Sanskrit, Avestan, Greek, and Latin definitely have more in common with Proto-Indo-European (PIE) as they are not removed as far from the ancestral source in time, and also because PIE was mostly reconstructed in their image. A more interesting question to ask is which modern (still ...

Nov 30, 2020 · The history of the Indo-European languages is broadly one of loss of inflectional complexity, though the details vary from language to language. As a result, if an IE language's gender system differs from its parent it will be in a reduction in genders. That's not an iron law: genders can be innovated as well.

Oct 13, 2017 · The difference between modern English and the gender system in most Indo-European languages (including Old English) is that English has replaced “conventional” gender by “natural” gender, reinterpreting all inanimate nouns as neuter. This is different from the situation in Persian etc., where the personal pronouns are invariable for gender.

Mar 30, 2016 · What is the relationship of Proto-Indo-European, Indo-European, Proto-Germanic and Germanic? 0 Is there a reason germanic languages are more different from other PIE languages?

Oct 29, 2019 · But, there was a system called Linear A that was used from 1800 to 1250 BC. The Rigveda was written around 1500 BC. This means that, unless texts of Proto Indo-European itself were found or something older than this (prob. Anatolian), if the hypothesis that these are Indo-European languages is true, this could be right.

Even so, old indo-european languages do seem to have rather complex rules, incorporating many seemingly different lexical forms, about noun inflection and verb conjugation, making them perhaps in a real sense "harder" to learn than agglutinative languages. I'll try to address why by pasting together some hypotheses and some facts.

Mar 10, 2024 · It’s called Indo-European because when it was first discovered that Indic and Iranian languages were related to European ones, the name coined for the newly-discovered family was based on its geographical expanse – it basically means ‘spanning from [the western border of] Europe in the west all the way to [the eastern border of] India in the east’.

Generally, all Indo-European Anatolian languages had some kind of agglutinative qualities, apparently because of the substratum languages that were agglutinative e.g. Hattic and Hurrian. Nevetheless, that does not qualify them as agglutinative in the same sense as Korean, Japanese, Turkish, Basque, Berber and so on.

Sep 9, 2024 · Each language has its own set of phonotactic restrictions; being an Indo-European language doesn’t come with any special restrictions. Some restrictions will be more common than others, but those restrictions will also most likely be more common outside Indo-European (e.g., disallowing initial clusters like /lk/ or /kg/ is near-universal in ...